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Origin and Evolution of life Class 12 Biology Chapter 5 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board
Class 12 | Biology Maharashtra Board Textbook Solutions
13 Apr 2026

Origin and Evolution of life Class 12 Biology Chapter 5 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Q. 1. Multiple choice questions. 1. Who proposed that the first form of life could have come from pre- existing nonliving organic molecules?a. Alfred Wallaceb. Oparin and Haldanec. Charles Darwind. Louis Pasteur Answer. (b) Oparin and Haldane 2. The sequence of origin of life may be a. Organic materials- inorganic materials – Eobiont- colloidal aggregates- cell.b. Inorganic materials – organic materials – colloidal aggregates – Eobiont- cell.c. Organic materials- inorganic materials – colloidal aggregates – celld. Inorganic materials- organic materials – Eobiont- colloidal aggregates – cell Answer. (b) Inorganic materials – organic materials- colloidal aggregates – Eobiont – cell. 3. In Hardy-Weinberg equation, the frequency of homozygous recessive individual is represented by-(a) p²(b) pq(c) q²(d) 2pq Answer. (c) q² 4. Select the analogous organs a. Forelimbs of whale and batb. Flippers of dolphins and penguinc. Thorn and tendrils of bougainvillea and cucurbita.d. Vertebrates hearts or brains. Answer. (b) Flippers of dolphins and penguin 5. Archaeopteryx is known as missing link because it is a fossil and share characters of both a. Fishes and amphibiansb. Annelida and arthropoda.c. Birds and reptilesd. Chordates and nonchordates. Answer. (c) Reptiles and birds 6. Identify the wrong statement regarding evolution.a. Darwin’s variations are small and directional.b. Mutations are random and nondirectional.c. Adaptive radiations leads to divergent evolution.d. Mutations are non- radamon and directional. Answer. (d) Mutations are non-random and directional 7. Gene frequency in a population remain constant due to –a. Mutationb. Migrationc. Random matingd. Non- random mating Answer. (c) Random mating 8. Which of the following characteristic is not shown by the ape?a. Prognathous faceb. tail is presentc. Chin is absentd. forelimbs are longer than hind limbs Answer. (b) Tail is present 9. ……………… can be considered as conncting link between between ape and man.a. Austalopithecusb. Homo hablisc. Homo erectusd. Neanderthal man. Answer. (a) Australopithecus 10. The Cranial capacity of Neanderthal man was ……………….(a) 600 cc(b) 940 cc(c) 1400 cc(d) 1600 cc Answer. (c) 1400 cc Q. 2. Very short answer question. 1. Define the following terms– a. Gene pool Answer. The sum total of genes of all individuals of interbreeding population or Mendelian population is called gene pool. b. gene frequency Answer. The proportion of an allele in the gene pool as compared with other alleles at the same locus is termed as gene frequency. c. Organic evolution Answer. Organic evolution can be defined as slow, gradual, continuous and irreversible changes through which the present-day complex forms of the life developed (or evolved) from their simple pre-existing forms. d. Population Answer. All individuals of the same species form a group which is called a population. e. Speciation Answer. Formation of new species from the pre-existing single group of organisms is called speciation. 2. What is adaptive radiation? Answer. The process of evolution which results in transformation of original species to many different varieties is called adaptive radiation. 3. If the variation occur in population by chance alone and not through natural selection and it brings change in frequencies of an allele. What is it called? Answer. If the variation occurs in population by chance alone and not by natural selection to bring change in frequencies of an allele, it is called genetic drift. 4. State the Hardy – Weinberg eqnilibrium. Answer. The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium law states that at equilibrium point both the allelic frequency and genotypic frequency remain constant from generation to generation, in the diploid, sexually reproducing, large, free interbreeding population in which mating is random and there is absence of any other factors that change the allele frequency. 5. What are homologous organs? Answer. Homologous organs are those organs, which are structurally similar but perform different functions. 6. What is vestigeal organ? Answer. Vestigial organs are imperfectly developed and non-functional organs which are in degenerate form, they may be functional in some related and other animals or in ancestor. 7. What is the scientific name of modern man? Answer. Homo sapiens sapiens is the scientific name of modern man. 8. What is coacervate? Answer. Coacervates are colloidal aggregations of hydrophobic proteins and lipids which grew in size by taking up material from surrounding aqueous medium. 9. Which period is known as “age of Reptilia”? Answer. Jurassic period from Mesozoic era is known as age of Reptilia. 10. Name the ancestor of human which is described as man with ape brain. Answer. Australopithecus, the ancestor of human which is described as man with ape brain. Q. 3. Short answer question. 1. Write a note on Genetic drift. Answer. 2. Enlist the different factors that are responsible for changing gene frequency. Answer. Gene flow, genetic drift, gene mutations, chromosomal aberrations such as deletion, duplication, inversion and translocation, genetic recombinations, natural selection, isolation are some of the factors which are responsible for changing the gene frequency. 3. Draw a graph to show that natural selection leads to disruptive change. Answer. 4. Give the significance of fossils. Answer. 5. Write the objections to Mutation theory of Hugo de vries. Answer. Objections to Mutation Theory: 6. What is disrruptive selection? Give example. Answer. Disruptive selection: Example of disruptive selection:African seed cracker finches are types of seed-feeder birds which have different sizes of beak. The seeds available to them were of small and large sized. Large beak sized birds feeds on large seeds while small beak sized birds feed on small seeds. Such large and small birds thus thrive well. However, intermediate beak sized birds are unable to feed on either type of seeds so they starve and their population was decreased gradually. Natural selection eliminated them and thus the population of finches appear disrupted. Q. 4. Match the following. Answer. Column I Column II (1) August Weismann (b) Germplasm theory (2) Hugo de Vries (a) Mutation theory (3) Charles Darwin (d) Theory of natural selection (4) Lamarck (c) Theory of acquired characters Q. 5. Long answer questions. 1. Would you consider wings of butterfly and bat as homologous or analogous and why? Answer. Wings of butterfly are made up of chitin. They neither have bones,

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Precipitation Class 9 Geography Chapter 5 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board
Class 9 Social Science Maharashtra Board Textbook Solutions
26 Mar 2026

Precipitation Class 9 Geography Chapter 5 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

1. Identify the precipitation type with the help of the description given: (a) It is the main source of the water that you use. Sometimes it is torrential and sometimes continuous. Most of the agriculture in India is dependent on it. Answer. Rainfall (b) It seems as if water droplets are floating in the atmosphere. In London, one cannot see the Sun till the afternoon during winters because of this phenomenon. Answer.  Fog (c) It never precipitates like this in equatorial areas. Precipitation in the solid form sometimes causes damage to the crops. Answer. Hail (d) A white cotton like layer spreads on the earth’s surface. Because of this form of precipitation, the State of Jammu and Kashmir has to change its capital in winters. In Maharashtra, it does not precipitate like this. Answer. Snow 2. Look at the following pictures and identify the correct rainfall type. Answer. Convectional rainfall Answer. Orographic rainfall Answer. Cyclonic rainfall 3. Look at the figures above and answer the following questions: (1) In fig B, on which side of the mountain is it raining more? Answer. The windward side is receiving more rainfall. (2) Shade the rain shadow region in fig B and name it. Answer. The rain shadow region is on the leeward side of the mountain in Figure B. (3) What is the difference between A and C ? Answer. Convectional (A) is heat-induced; Cyclonic (C) is pressure-induced with storms. (4) Stormy winds and floods are associated with which rainfall type? Answer. Stormy winds and floods are associated with Cyclonic rainfall. (5) What type of rainfall occurs in Singapore? Answer. Convectional rainfall occurs in Singapore. 4. Identify the odd man out : (1) Orographic rainfall, acid rain, cyclonic rainfall, convectional rainfall Answer. Acid rain (2) Snowfall, rainfall, hailstones, dew Answer. Dew (3) Thermometer, rain gauge, anemometer, measuring jar Answer. Measuring jar 5. Answer in brief: (1) In what ways does precipitation occur on the earth ? Answer. Precipitation means water falls in the solid or liquid state from the clouds to the earth surface. Snow, hailstorms, rainfall are the major forms of precipitation. (i) Snow: (ii) Hail: (iii) Rainfall: (iv) Fog, dew and frost: (2) Comment on the rainfall occuring in the rain shadow area. Answer. (3) Which type of rainfall occurs in most of the world? Why? Answer. (4) If condensation occurs closer to the earth’s surface, what types of forms become visible ? Answer. If condensation and solidification of the water vapour in the atmosphere closer to the earth surface are visible, they are in the form of fog, dew or frost. (i) Fog: (ii) Dew: (iii) Frost: (5) What precautions should be taken while measuring rainfall? Answer. 6. Distinguish between – (1) Dew and frost Answer. Dew Frost (i) When moisture-laden air near the earth’s surface comes into contact with very cold objects, condensation of vapour takes place into small water droplets called dew. (i) If the temperature of the air is less then CPC, the water droplets stuck to the surface of cold objects, freezes forming frost. (ii) Water vapour condenses and forms droplets of water. (ii) Water droplets stuck to cold surface turns to frozen water droplets. (iii) Dew sticks to the cold object but does not freeze. (iii) It sticks to the cold object and freeze. (2) Snow and hail Answer. Snow Hail (i) Precipitation in the form of solid particles of snow is known as snow fall. (i) Precipitation in the form of frozen water droplets falling rapidly to the ground is know as hail. (ii) The fall of temperature in the atmosphere below the freezing point causes snow fall (ii) Extreme heat on the surface of the earth initiates the process of hail formation. (iii) Heavy accumulation of snow can collapse the transportation and communication system of the area. (iii) It destroys crops and causes loss of life.

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India and other Countries Class 9 Political Science Chapter 5 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board
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24 Mar 2026

India and other Countries Class 9 Political Science Chapter 5 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

1. Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the statements. (1) The country that has a free international border with India –(a) Pakistan (b) Bangladesh(c) Nepal (d) Myanmar Answer. (c) Nepal (2) The countries that have tensed relations with India –(a) Pakistan and China.(b) Nepal and Bhutan(c) Myanmar and Maldives(d) Afghanistan and America. Answer. (a) Pakistan and China. (3) Factors that have an influence on the relations between India and Pakistan –(a) Difference in the world view of both the countries.(b) Kashmir issue(c) Nuclear Rivalry(d) All of the above Answer. (d) All of the above 2. State whether the following statements are true or false. Give reasons for your answer. (1) India has an important position among the South Asian countries. Answer. True. (2) Sino-Indian relations are friendly. Answer. False. (3) India sent a peacekeeping force to help the Sri Lankan government. Answer. True. 3. Complete the following chart. Answer. Treaties/Exchanges Countries Shimla Agreement, Tashkent Agreement India and Pakistan Macmahon Line India and China Treaties about sharing river waters and borders India and Bangladesh Import of natural gas Myanmar Civil Nuclear Agreement India and Africa 4. Explain the following concepts. (1) Shimla Agreement Answer. (i) India tried to solve Indo-Pak conflict bi-laterally. The Shimla Agreement of 1972 was based on these principles. (ii) Pakistan considers Kashmir as the biggest hurdle in establishing relations with India. (iii) The first Indo-Pak war took place in 1965, over Kashmir. The Tashkent Agreement was signed in 1966, but nothing much came out of it. (iv) Even though the 1971 war was about the creation of Bangladesh, it also had the dimension of the Kashmir problem to it. (v) The Shimla Agreement in 1972 provided a new format to the interaction between India and Pakistan. (2) Indo-Nepalese friendship treaty Answer. (i) The foundation of friendship between India and Nepal was laid with Indo-Nepalese Friendship Treaty in 1950. (ii) According to this treaty, Nepalese citizens can not only enter India, but they are also permitted to take up government jobs and carry on trade in India. (iii) The year 1990 marked the beginning of Nepal’s transition to democracy. (iv) Nepal is dependent upon India for economic progress, basic facilities, food related needs, trade and energy needs. (v) India sent a lot of help to Nepal at the time of the 2015 earthquake. (3) Macmahon Line Answer. (i) The conflict between India and China is connected to two issues : (ii) The border dispute between India and China is related to Aksai Chin area and the Macmahon line. (iii) China claims that the area South of Aksai Chin and Macmahon line (Arunachal Pradesh) is Chinese Territory. (iv) China is not willing to agree that Macmahon Line is an international border. (v) India made several efforts to sort this border dispute by means of dialogue, but it has not met with much success. (vi) In 1962, China attacked India. (4) Indo-Afghanistan Relations Answer. (i) There is a lot of political instability in Afghanistan. (ii) The dominance of the terrorist organisation, Taliban is responsible for this. (iii) India has extended help to bring peace, security and stability, curb violence and establish a democratic government. (iv) Similarly, India is also helping Afghanistan in re-establishing communication facilities that have got destroyed due to war, build roads, cooperate in the fields of science and technology, build schools, health facilities and irrigation projects. 5. Answer in brief. (1) Explain the background of cooperative relations between India and America. Answer. India and America are two powerful nations who have democratic political systems. Right from the beginning, America was India’s most important trading partner. (i) Many Indians have gone to America for education or work. Due to the presence of these non-resident Indians, the cultural, social and economic relations between America and India have been increasing. (ii) After the end of Cold War, the military relations between India and America have increased on a large scale. (iii) After India accepted free market economy, the speed of economic progress slowly increased. It resulted in further strengthening the trade relations between India and America. (iv) When India conducted nuclear tests in 1998, there was tension in the relations between the two countries. (v) Many rounds of discussions took place after that to improve the relations. Through these rounds of talks, America came to believe that India will use its nuclear weapons with responsibility. This completely transformed the Indo-American relations. (vi) The Civil Nuclear Agreement signed in 2005 that was approved by the U.S. Congress in 2008 was an important landmark in Indo-American relations. (2) Give some information about the efforts taken by India for the establishment of democracy in neighbouring countries with examples. Answer. India upheld sovereignty and democratic values in Nepal, Afghanistan, Sri Lanka and Pakistan. (i) Nepal was a Hindu Kingdom which adopted democratic government in 2006. India backed up its decision of adopting popular rule by helping Nepal with constitutional guidelines. (ii) India also extended friendly relations to Ashraf Ghani through SAARC and other international platforms after the collapse of Taliban there. (iii) India sent a peacekeeping force to Sri Lanka to bring about a cease fire between Sinhalese and Tamils and enforce peace and democracy. (iv) The regime of Pervez Musharraf had adopted aggressive foreign policies and oppressed public opinion in Pakistan which led to violence and chaos. India had also criticised military rule in Pakistan. (3) What is the role of South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation ? Answer. SAARC is a regional organisation established by the South Asian countries in 1985. (i) The aim of this organisation is to encourage economic co-operation between South Asian nations and thereby achieve the development of the South Asian region. (ii) The organisation of SAARC is a platform for South Asian countries to come together and discuss common questions and interests. (iii) Some common interests of South Asian countries are alleviation of poverty, development of agriculture and technological revolution. (iv) Some treaties were signed on the SAARC platform to make it

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Education Class 9 History And Political Science Chapter 5 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board
Class 9 Social Science Maharashtra Board Textbook Solutions
18 Mar 2026

Education Class 9 History And Political Science Chapter 5 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

1. Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the statements. (1) The scientist who developed the Param-8000 supercomputer –(a) Dr Vijay Bhatkar(b) Dr R. H. Dave(c) P Parthasarathy(d) None of the above Answer. (a) Dr. Vijay Bhatkar (2) The magazine Jeevan Shikshan is published by the following institute –(a) Balbharati (b) University Education Commission (c) MSCERT Answer. (c) MSCERT (3) The educational institution called IIT is famous for education in the area of –(a) Agriculture (b) Medicine(c) Skilled managers (d) Engineering Answer. (d) Engineering 2. Complete the activity as per the given instruction. (1) Complete the table below with details about individuals in the education field and their work. Answer. Individual Work First education minister of India Maulana Abul Kalam Azad. Dr. Sarvapalli Radhakrishna Chairman of the University Education Commission Prof Sayyad Rauf Preparation of common state-wide curriculum for Std. I to VII for Maharashtra. Anutai Wagh Kosbad Project (2) Obtain information about the National Council of Educational Research and Training, from the internet, and present it in the form of a timeline. Answer. 1st September 1961 The National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) was established in Delhi. 27th January 1967 The Maharashtra State Bureau of Textbook Production and Curriculum Research (Balbharati) was established in Pune. 1986 The National Policy on Education was adopted. 1988 The ‘Primary Education Curriculum was prepared. 1995 The Competency-based primary education curriculum. 1975 India met with success in its attempt to use a satellite for the purpose of education. 1970 The United Nations declared the year 1970 as the International Education Year. A seminar was organised in New Delhi and led to the establishment of an open university. 1974 The government appointed a committee under the chairmanship of P. Parthasarathy 3. Explain the following statements with reasons. (1) The District Primary Education Programme was undertaken. Answer. (i) In 1994, the District Primary Education Programme (DPEP) was started with the objective of universalisation of primary education. It was implemented in seven States including Maharashtra. (ii) The plan envisaged 100% attendance in primary schools, arresting student drop-out, education for girls and for the physically handicapped. (iii) It included programmes such as research on and evaluation of primary education, alternative education, creating societal awareness, etc. (2) The NCERT was established. Answer. (i) National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) was established in Delhi on the 1st of September 1961. (ii) Its main objective is to help the Central Government in matters of school education in the context of a comprehensive policy and in implementing educational schemes. The NCERT was given the responsibility of educational research and development, training, extension, educational programmes, restructuring of school curriculum and textbooks. (iii) It has played a central role in designing school curricula and textbooks with the cooperation of the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE). (iv) It provides guidance and cooperation in the area of primary and secondary education to the state governments. (v) It has been involved in designing workbooks and handbooks for teachers, in teacher training, in developing teaching-learning techniques and conducting talent search examinations at the national level. (3) The farmers were benefited by the Indian Agricultural Research Institute. Answer. (i) The Indian Agricultural Research Institute was given the status of a University in 1958 and work began in departments such as the development of the agriculture sector, research, well-equipped laboratories, soil science, agricultural sciences, economic botany and other departments. (ii) Research also began on wheat, pulses, oilseeds, vegetables and many other problems. (iii) Its most significant achievement is the fundamental research it has conducted on the methods of taking multiple crops in a year, which has been of great benefit to farmers. 4. Write short notes on- (1) Indira Gandhi National Open University Answer. (i) Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU) was established with the objective that the stream of education should makeits way into every average household of the country. (ii) The United Nations had declared 1970 as the International Education Year. In the same year, a seminar was organised in New Delhi on the subject of Open University by the Government of India Departments of Education and Social Welfare, Information and Broadcasting, University Grants Commission along with UNESCO. The idea of establishing an open university evolved in this seminar. (iii) In 1974, the government appointed a committee under the chairmanship of P. Parthasarathy and the Open University took shape on 20 September, 1985 in accordance with its recommendations and suggestions. It was named after Prime Minister Indira Gandhi. Those who are unable to get a college education in the formal way are given concessions in eligibility criteria, age and other conditions for admission to this university. (iv) In 1990, the IGNOU started an audio-visual distance education programme through Akashvani and Doordarshan. It conducted more than one thousand curricula of various branches.It provides facilities for education through 58 training centres in the country and 41 centres in foreign countries. (2) Kothari Commission Answer. (i)In 1964 a Commission was appointed under the Chairmanship of Dr D. S. Kothari. Dr J. P. Naik made valuable contributions to the work of this Commission. (ii)The Commission also recommended the 10+2+3 pattern for secondary, higher secondary and university education. This system was implemented from 1972. (iii)The Commission also suggested a uniform national system of education, the inclusion of the mother tongue, Hindi and English in education, as well as continuing education, adult education, education by correspondence and open universities to make education trickle down to the lowest rungs of society. (iv)It also recommended increased provision in the government’s budget for expenditure on education of neglected sections like the scheduled castes and tribes. Maharashtra government adopted the 10+2+3 pattern in 1972 and conducted the first Std X Board exam in 1975. (3) Bhabha Atomic Research Centre Answer. (i) Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) has conducted valuable research in the fields of nuclear physics, solid state physics, spectroscopy, chemical and life sciences. (ii) It also started a school to train scientists for setting up nuclear reactors. (4)

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Natural Vegetation And Wildlife Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board
Class 10 Social Science Maharashtra Board Textbook Solutions
11 Mar 2026

Natural Vegetation And Wildlife Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

1. On the basis of the information given in the chapter, figures and maps, complete the table below: Answer. S. No. Type of forest Characteristics Regions in India Regions in Brazil (1) Tropical Forests Broad-leaved evergreen trees. Andaman and Nicobar Islands, the Western Ghats. Some parts of North East India. Amazon Basin, Guyana Highlands. (2) Semi arid thorny vegetation (a) Thorny and shrub type vegetation.(b) Leaves are small in size. Leaves are modified into thorns to minimise evaporation. Gujarat, Rajasthan, Parts of Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh. North-Eastern part of Brazil. (3) Savannah Scanty bushes and shrub like trees and rain resistant grass. Brazilian Highland. (4) Tropicalsemi-deciduous Mixed type vegetation. Central India and South India. Parana Basin and South Eastern part of Brazil. (5) Grasslands Grassland region like the Pampas of Argentina. Foothills of Shiwalik hills and Assam. Southern Brazil. 2. Identify the odd man out (1) Forest type of Brazil ______. (a) Thorny bush type vegetation(b) Evergreen forests(c) The Himalayan Forests(d) Deciduous forests Answer. (c) The Himalayan Forests (2) With reference to India- (a) Mangrove forests(b) Mediterranean forests(c) Thorny bush-type vegetation(d) Equatorial forests Answer. (b) Mediterranean forests (3) With reference to fauna of Brazil- (a) Anaconda(b) Tamairin(c) Red Panda(d) Lion Answer. (c) Red Panda (4) With reference to flora of India- (a Deodar(b) Anjan(c) Orchid(d) Banyan Answer. (c) Orchid 3. Match the columns : Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’ Evergreen Forests (a) Sundari trees Deciduous forests (b) Pine Coastal forests (c) Pau Brasil Himalayan forests (d) Khejari Thorny and bush type vegetation (e) Teak (f) Orchid Answer. 1 – c2 – e3 – a4 – b5 – d 4. Answer in short: (a) Differentiate between the forest types of Brazil and India. Answer. Forest type of Brazil Forest type of India 1. The northern part of Brazil lies in the equatorial region. It receives ample sunshine and heavy rainfall. So dense evergreen forests are seen here. 1. The location of India is far away from the Equator. Heavy rainfall occurs only in the Western Ghats and North Eastern hilly areas. So evergreen forests are seen in these regions. 2. The Highland region of Brazil receives low rainfall. So tropical grasslands are seen in this region. 2. The Peninsula region of India receives rainfall between 1000 mm to 2000 mm, so they are covered by deciduous forests. 3. As there are no tall and long extending mountains in Brazil, Himalayan type forests are not found here. 3. Owing to presence of Himalayas, Himalayan type forests are found in North and North-East of India that are classified on the basis of altitude. 4. Thorny shrubs are found to the North Eastern part of Brazilian Highlands which is also considered to be a Drought Quadrilateral. 4. Thorny shrubs are found in India receiving less than 500 mm of rainfall. It is majorly found in Gujarat, Rajasthan and rain shadow regions of the Western Ghats. (b) Correlate wildlife and natural vegetation in India and Brazil. Answer. (i) Depending upon favourable geographical conditions, we find a variety of natural vegetation in India and Brazil. Also depending upon the vegetation we find a variety of wildlife in different regions. (ii) Grasslands of Brazil like the Savannah and the deciduous forest of India have a large number of herbivores and carnivores. (iii) The dense evergreen forests of India in the west, north east India and the Amazon Basin of Brazil are a home to a large variety of birds, insects, reptiles along with the herbivores and the carnivores. (iv) Coastal forests and swampy areas of Pantanal and Sunderbans have mangroves, a variety of birds, fishes and reptiles like crocodiles, alligators and the anacondas in Brazil. (v) Vegetation provides food and shelter to wildlife but if vegetation is limited like in the Thar desert or the Caatinga it will also limit the variety of animals species. (c) What environmental issues are faced by Brazil and India? Answer. (d) What are the major causes of degradation of forest in Brazil and India? Answer. (i) Forests are being cut down as more area is required to expand the cities. Hence rapid urbanisation is one of the reasons for degradation of forest. (ii) To ensure continuous food supply to meet the needs of the ever increasing population, more and more area needs to be brought under agriculture. For the expansion of agricultural land, forest areas are being cut down. (iii) In both India and Brazil, forests are being cut down for firewood and for other domestic needs. (iv) Slash and Burn agriculture which is also known as Roca in Brazil and Jhum in India is responsible for deforestation. (v) Apart from all the above reasons, forest fire, pollution, overgrazing, etc. are also responsible for the degradation of forests. (e) Why does the deciduous type of vegetation occupy most of India? Answer. 5. Give geographical reasons (a) The northern part of Brazil is covered by dense forests. Answer. (b) Vegetation is scarce in the high altitudes of Himalayas. Answer. (c) A wide variety of species of insects is found in Brazil. Answer. (d) Wildlife in India is decreasing day by day. Answer. (i) Wildlife in India is decreasing day by day because of rapidly occurring deforestation, poaching, pollution. (ii) Expansion of cities to accommodate the growing population is leading to cutting down of the valuable forest which leads to the loss of the habitat of wildlife. (iii) Also the problem of pollution has become severe due to urbanisation. Various types of pollution have threatened the lives of many of the species. (iv) Poaching of wildlife species have also led to the loss of wildlife in India. (v) Agricultural practices like shifting cultivation has also reduced the forest cover leading to loss of wildlife habitat. (e) Like India, there is need of conservation of forests in Brazil too. Answer. (i) Like India, Brazil is facing the problem of degradation of environment due to deforestation, pollution, slash and burn agriculture, illegal smuggling of wild animals, etc. (ii) Trees are being cut down to

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Challenges faced by Indian Democracy Class 10 Political Science Chapter 5 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board
Class 10 Social Science Maharashtra Board Textbook Solutions
10 Mar 2026

Challenges faced by Indian Democracy Class 10 Political Science Chapter 5 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

1. Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the sentences. (1) In a democracy …………….. participate in elections and get political power. (a) political parties(b) courts(c) social organisations(d) none of the above Answer. (a) political party (2) The major challenge faced by all democratic nations in the world is ……………………. . (a) Religious conflicts(b) Naxal activities(c) Deepening the roots of democracy(d) Importance to muscle power Answer. (c) Deepening the roots of democracy 2. State whether following statements are true or false. Give reasons for your answer. (1) Alertness is required to sustain democracy. Answer. The above statement is True. (2) Importance of the problems of farmers and tribals has increased in the left extremist movement. Answer. The above statement is False. (3) People may lose confidence in the democratic process due to corruption during elections. Answer. The above statement is True. 3. Explain the concept. (1) Left-extremism Answer. (2) Corruption Answer. 4. Answer the following questions in brief. (1) Which factors are required for the success of democracy in India? Answer. The following factors are required for the success of democracy in India: (2) What are the effects of criminalisation of politics? Answer. The following effects are seen due to criminalisation of politics: (3) What efforts are undertaken to bring transparency in political process? Answer. The following efforts are made to bring transparency in political process:

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Mass Media and History Class 10 History Chapter 5 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board
Maharashtra Board
9 Mar 2026

Mass Media and History Class 10 History Chapter 5 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

1. (A) Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the statement. (1) The first English newspaper in India was started by ……… (a) James Augustus Hickey (b) John Marshall (c) Allen Hume (d) Balashastri Jambhekar Answer. (a) James Augustus Hickey (2) Television is an …………….medium. (a) visual (b) audio (c) audio-visual (d) tactile Answer. (c) audio-visual (B) Identify and write the wrong pair in the following set. (1) ‘Prabhakar’ – Acharya P.K. Atre (2) ‘Darpan’ – Balshastri Jambhekar (3) ‘Deenbandhu’ – Krishnarao Bhalekar (4) ‘Kesari’ – Bal Gangadhar Tilak Answer. (1) Wrong Pair: ‘Prabhakar’ – Acharya P.K. Atre 2. Write short notes : (1) The role of newspaper in the Indian struggle for independence Answer. (2) Why do we need mass media ? Answer. (3) Mass Media and professional opportunities. Answer. 3. Explain the following statements with reasons. (1) Any information received through mass media needs to be reviewed critically. Answer. (2) Knowledge of history is essential for newspaper articles. Answer. (3) Television is the most popular medium. Answer. 4. Read the following extract and answer the questions. Radio : ‘Indian Broadcasting Company’ (IBC), a private radio company was the first one to broadcast daily programmes. Later the same company was taken over by the British Government and named as, ‘Indian State Broadcasting Service (ISBS). On 8th June 1936 it was renamed, as ‘All India Radio (AIR)’.After Independence, AIR became an integral part of the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting (India). Initially, it broadcasted Governmental programmes and schemes. It was named as ‘Akashvani’ on the suggestion of the famous poet Pandit Narendra Sharma. Akashvani broadcastsvarious entertainment, awareness creating and literary programmes. It also broadcasts special programmes for farmers, workers, the youth and women. The ‘Vividh Bharati’ programmes are broadcasted in 24 regional languages as well as 146 dialects of Indian languages. Lately, various new channels like ‘Radio Mirchi’ are providing radio services. 1. Akashvani (AIR) is an integral part of which ministry? Answer. Akashvani (AIR) is an integral part of the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting (India). 2. What was the new name of IBC? Answer. The new name of IBC was Indian State Broadcasting Service (ISBS). 3. In how many regional languages and local dialects are ‘Vividh Bharati’ programmes broadcasted? Answer. ‘Vividh Bharati’ programmes are broadcasted in 24 regional languages and 146 dialects of Indian languages. 4. How AIR was named ‘Akashvani’? Answer. AIR was named ‘Akashvani’ on the suggestion of the famous poet Pandit Narendra Sharma. 5. Complete the following concept chart. Answer. Newspapers Radio Television Background/Beginning James Augustus Hickey started Calcutta General Advertiser or Bengal Gazette on 29th January, 1780. It was the first newspaper in English. A private radio station was started known as Indian Broadcasting Company. First Doordarshan centre was started in Delhi. Information Programmes News, articles, columns, opinions of the people, editorials, advertisements etc. are published. Along with entertainment programmes, have literary, informative programmes on farmers, women and educative values. Events around the world, movies, music, information about environmental and historical places, sports are shown either live or recorded. Functions (1) Report daily news(2) Public awareness and mass education.(3) Provide information and strengthen democracy.(4) Oppose injustice and give publicity to developmental work. (1) Provide news from different sectors.(2) Entertain through music, dramas, songs, etc.(3) Present social problems and educate the masses about it.(4) Conduct discussions on various issues ranging from the environment to culture. (1) Telecast daily events and entertain.(2) Educate the masses.(3) Publicise programmes which are for social benefit.(4) Bring about social awakening opposing evil traditions and practices.

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Towards Green Energy Class 10 Science 2 Chapter 5 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board
Maharashtra Board
7 Mar 2026

Towards Green Energy Class 10 Science 2 Chapter 5 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

1. Remake the table taking into account relation between entries in three columns. Answer. I II III Coal Thermal energy Thermal plant Uranium Nuclear energy Nuclear power plant Water reservoir Potential energy Hydroelectric plant Wind Kinetic energy Wind electricity plant 2. Which fuel is used in thermal power plant? What are the problems associated with this type of power generation? Answer. (1) The fuel used in the thermal power plant is coal. Coal contains chemical energy. Upon burning it releases heat energy. This heat is used for generation of electricity in the thermal power plants. (2) Problems associated with power generations by thermal power plant:(a) Air pollution: Due to burning of coal, there is emission of carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide, sulphur dioxide and nitrogen dioxide gases. These are harmful and toxic to health.(b) Soot particles emitted during combustion can cause severe respiratory problems such as asthma. 3. Other than thermal power plant, which power plants use thermal energy for power generation? In what different ways is the thermal energy obtained ? Answer. Other than thermal power plant, nuclear power plants, solar power plants use thermal energy for power generation. Different ways of generating thermal energy are: 4. Which type/types of power generation involve maximum number of steps of energy conversion? In which power generation is the number minimum ? Answer. Nuclear Power Plant involves maximum number of steps in the process of transformation. Electric Generator using Wind involves the minimum steps in the process of transformation. Kinetic energy in wind → Kinetic energy in turbine → Electric energy 5. Solve the following crossword puzzle. a. Maximum energy generation in India is done using….. energy. Answer.  thermal b. …… energy is a renewable source of energy Answer. wind c. Solar energy can be called…. energy. Answer. clean d …. energy of wind is used in wind mills. Answer. kinetic e. ….. energy of water in dams is used for generation of electricity. Answer. Potential 6. Explain the difference. a. Conventional and Non-conventional Sources of energy. Answer. Conventional sources of energy Non-Conventional sources of energy (i) These are those sources which have been in use from ages. These sources have generally been identified in the recent past. (ii) These are non-renewable sources of energy. These are renewable sources of energy. (iii) These will last long, just for 100-200 years. These are going to last forever. (iv) These cause air and water pollution. These do not cause any pollution. (v) These are very expensive to maintain, store, and transmit, e.g., coal, mineral oil, natural gas, atomic power, and water. These are less expensive or cheap due to local used easy to be maintained e.g. solar energy, tidal energy, wind energy, geothermal energy b. Thermal electricity generation and solar thermal electricity generation. Answer. Thermal electricity generation and solar thermal electricity generation. Thermal electricity generation Solar thermal electricity generation It uses non-renewable source of energy for electricity generation such as fossil fuels, natural gas or nuclear fuels. It uses renewable source of energy i.e. solar energy for electricity generation. This method of electricity generation is not environment friendly. It causes air pollution. This is environment friendly method of electricity generation. It does not cause air pollution. This method requires maintenance. This method does not require maintenance. 7. What is meant by green energy? Which energy sources can be called as green energy sources and why? Give example. Answer. (1) Green energy means eco-friendly form of energy which does not cause environmental problems and are non-exhaustible, perpetual and sustainable.(2) These sources of energy do not produce toxic gases or other pollutants, therefore they are safe.(3) Examples of green energy: (i) Hydroelectric energy (ii) Wind energy (iii) Solar energy (iv) Energy obtained bio fuels. 8. Explain the following sentences. a. Energy obtained from fossil fuels is not green energy. Answer. b. Saving energy is the need of the hour. Answer. Yes, certainly energy conservation has become the need of the hour. We know our day to day life runs on electricity. Be it fans, lights, televisions, escalators, vehicles on roads or water supply to our homes, each and everything requires energy- “The Electrical Energy” for its working. Even the technology advancement has made it possible to supply electricity to most remote places. Thus, to produce such huge amount of electrical energy, we are getting more and more dependent on non-renewable sources of energy such as coal, petroleum, etc. It is observed that the rate at which these fuels are consumed is much greater than at which it is produced. So, if it continues like this, a day will come when we would get deprived of these sources of energy and thus will not even get the basic amenities of life. So, take a pledge to not waste energy wherever possible for the betterment of our and future generation. 9. Answer the following questions. a. How can we get the required amount of energy by connecting solar panels ? Answer. Many identical solar cells connected together forms a solar panel. Now, many such solar panels are connected in series in a form of solar string to get required voltage. Also, many such identical solar strings are connected in parallel to get the required current. Hence, in this way we get the required amount of energy by connecting solar panels. b. What are the advantages and limitations of solar energy ? Answer. I. Advantages: II. Limitations: 10. Explain with diagram step-by-step energy conversion in a. Thermal power plant Answer. In thermal power plant the turbines are rotated using steam. Here the coal is burnt. The heat energy liberated from this burning is used to heat the water in the boiler. This water produces steam of very high temperature and pressure. The kinetic energy in the steam rotates the turbines. The rotation of turbines produces its own mechanical kinetic energy. Chemical energy in coal → Thermal energy → Kinetic energy in steam→ kinetic energy b. Nuclear power plant. Answer. Nuclear power plants consist of nuclear reactors. These reactors use uranium rods as fuel

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Heat Class 10 Science 1 Chapter 5 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board
Maharashtra Board
2 Mar 2026

Heat Class 10 Science 1 Chapter 5 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

1. Fill in the blanks and rewrite the sentence. a. The amount of water vapour in air is determined in terms of its……….. Answer. The amount of water vapour in air is determined in terms of its absolute humidity. b. If objects of equal masses are given equal heat, their final temperature will be different. This is due to difference in their…………. Answer. If objects of equal masses are given equal heat, their final temperature will be different. This is due to difference in their specific heat capacities. c. When a liquid is getting converted into solid, the latent heat is………. Answer. When a liquid is getting converted into solid, the latent heat is released. 2. Observe the following graph. Considering the change in volume of water as its temperature is raised from 0 °C, discuss the difference in the behaviour of water and other substances. What is this behaviour of water called? Answer. If the temperature of water is raised from 0 °C to 10 °C, its volume goes on decreasing in the range 0 °C to 4 °C. It is minimum at 4 °C. The volume of water goes on increasing in the range 4 °C to 10 °C. In general, when a substance is heated, its volume goes on increasing with temperature. Thus, in the range 0 °C to 4 °C, behaviour of water is different from other substances. It is called anomalous behaviour of water. 3. What is meant by specific heat capacity? How will you prove experimentally that different substances have different specific heat capacities? Answer. The amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of a unit mass of an object by 1 °C is called the specific heat capacity of that object. Try this experiment. Material : A tray with thick layer of wax, solid spheres of iron, lead and copper of equal mass, burner or spirit lamp, large beaker.Procedure :(1) Take three spheres of iron, copper and lead of equal mass (Fig.).(2) Put all the three spheres in boiling water in the beaker for some time. (3) Take the three spheres out of the water. All the spheres will be at temperature 100°C. Put them immediately on the thick slab of wax.(4) Note, the depth that each of the sphere goes into the wax. The sphere which absorbs more heat from the water will give more heat to wax. More wax will thus melt and the sphere will go deeper in the wax. It can be observed that the iron sphere goes deepest into the wax. Lead sphere goes the least and copper sphere goes to intermediate depth. This shows that for equal rise in temperature, the three spheres have absorbed different amounts of heat. This means that the property which determines the amount of heat absorbed by a sphere is different for the three spheres. This property is called the specific heat capacity. 4. While deciding the unit for heat, which temperatures interval is chosen? Why? Answer. While deciding the unit for heat, the temperature interval chosen is 14.5 °C to 15.5 °C. For the reason, see the information. If we heat 1 kg of water by 1° C in a different temperature range than 14.5° C to 15.5° C, the amount of heat required is slightly different. It is, therefore, essential to define a specific temperature range while defining the unit of heat. The calorie and the joule are related by the following relation : 1 cal = 4.18 joules. 5. Explain the following temperature versus time graph. Answer. The graph shows what happens when a mixture of ice and water is heated continuously. The temperature of the mixture remains constant (0 °C) till all the ice melts as shown by the line AB. This temperature is the melting point of ice. On further heating, the temperature rises steadily from 0 ° C to 100 °C as shown by the line BC, At 100 °C water starts converting into steam. This temperature is the boiling point of water. Further heating does not change the temperature and the conversion steam continues as shown by the line CD. 6. Explain the following: a. What is the role of anomalous behaviour of water in preserving aquatic life in regions of cold climate? Answer. In cold regions, during winter, the temperature of the atmosphere falls well below 0 °C. As the temperature decreases, the water at the surfaces of lakes and ponds starts contracting. Hence, its density increases and it sinks to the bottom. This process continues till the temperature of all the water in a lake falls to 4 °C. As the water at the surface cools further, i.e., its temperature falls below 4 °C, it starts expanding instead of contracting. Therefore, its density decreases and it remains at the surface. The temperature of the water at the surface continues to fall to 0 °C. Finally, the water at the surface is converted into ice, but the water below the layer of ice is at 4 °C. Ice is a bad conductor of heat. Hence, the layer of the ice at the surface does not allow transfer of heat from the water to the atmosphere. As the water below the layer of ice remains at 4 °C, fish and other aquatic animals and plants can survive in it. b. How can you relate the formation of water droplets on the outer surface of a bottle taken out of refrigerator with formation of dew? Answer. At a given temperature, there is a limit on how much water vapour the given volume of air can hold. The lower the temperature, the lower is the capacity of air to hold water vapour. The temperature of a bottle kept in a refrigerator is lower than room temperature. Hence, when the bottle is taken out of the refrigerator, the temperature of the air surrounding the bottle is lowered. Therefore, the capacity of the air to hold water vapour becomes less. Hence, the excess water vapour condenses to form

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